Tuesday, April 6, 2021

Divorce and Remarriage

 

Divorce and Remarriage—Position Paper

How can a pastor possibly justify officiating in the wedding ceremony of someone who has been divorced? After all, Jesus was very clear, was he not, that divorce and remarriage are equivalent to adultery! This is a topic on which godly, Evangelical scholars and pastors disagree. This essay is my personal position on the issue of divorce and remarriage.[1]

              The united voice of the biblical writers is that God opposes divorce. Malachi goes so far as to say that God hates divorce. Jesus insisted that no one should separate what God has joined (Mark 10:9). Paul also insisted that people should not divorce (1 Corinthians 7:10). God’s intention was one man and one woman together until death.[2]

              On the other hand, according to Moses and the prophets, because of the hardness of people’s hearts, God Himself allowed divorce (Mt 19:8; Mk 10:5). When Jesus says that Moses allowed divorce, he was referring to Deuteronomy 24:1-3.[3] This passage forbids a man from remarrying his former wife after she had been remarried to another. The fact that divorce and remarriage were allowed was assumed and not even questioned.[4] Jesus—clarifying the true intent of the Law—says this allowance for divorce was made because of the hardness of people’s hearts. In other words, because some people are so wicked, so violent, so cruel or so utterly perverse, God sometimes allowed divorce.[5]

The real question is whether Jesus overturned the Father’s allowance for divorce. After all, Jesus overturned dietary laws (Mark 7:19)—did he overturn the allowance for divorce as well?

The answer to that question is not entirely clear. My position is that Jesus did not overturn the allowance for divorce. In other words, God still allows divorce for the hardness of people’s hearts. In the immediate context of Jesus’ prohibition of divorce and remarriage in Matthew 5 (in the Sermon on the Mount), Jesus says that he did not come to abolish the Law and Prophets (our Old Testament) and that not even the smallest part would disappear until all was fulfilled.

Although the New Covenant fulfilled and overturned the Old Covenant (the sacrificial system. See Hebrews 8-9), I see no reason to believe that Jesus had somehow fulfilled or overturned God’s allowance for divorce. People’s hearts are still just as hard now as they ever were. When Jesus said that not the smallest part of the Law would pass away, I am inclined to think that the Mosaic Law’s allowance for divorce did not pass away either.

When Jesus says that Moses allowed divorce for the hardness of people’s hearts, many people read that as if Jesus was correcting Moses to say that there should never have been an allowance for divorce (except maybe for sexual immorality). I propose that Jesus was not correcting Moses at all. Moses was, after all, speaking under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit! Jesus was correcting the way Moses had been twisted into allowing divorce for any reason!

More specifically, I believe Jesus’ was reacting to at least two historical issues. One was the position of those like Rabbi Hillel who taught that men should be able to divorce their wives for any reason. In the Sermon on the Mount, which contains one of Jesus’ prohibitions against divorce, Jesus was teaching the true intent of the Law. In the case of marriage, the true intent of the Law was that marriage be until death. In Mark 10:10-12 Jesus goes back to the creation account saying that God made them male and female and that no one should separate what God has joined. Jesus was clear that even in the Old Testament, the allowance for divorce was never intended as an “easy-out” whenever someone became dissatisfied with their marriage or found someone else they wanted more. Jesus was clarifying the Law regarding divorce, not overturning the Law’s allowance for divorce.

A second historical consideration is a more specific application of the first. In Jesus’ time Herod Antipas, the ruler of Galilee, had gone to Rome to discuss affairs of state with Sejanus, the Emperor’s right-hand man. While in Rome, Antipas had an affair with Herodias, the wife of his half-brother, Philip. Antipas and Herodias agreed to divorce their spouses so they could marry each other. That way they could make their adultery “legal.” John the Baptist preached against this affair[6] which was apparently public knowledge. This was, I believe, the historical background behind Jesus’ prohibitions against divorce in Matthew 5:32, 19:7-9; Mark 10:2-12, and Luke 16:18. Jesus was insisting that to divorce your spouse so you could marry another—like Antipas and Herodias were doing—is still just as much adultery in God’s eyes as if you hadn’t bothered to go through the motions. In my view, Jesus was not even addressing a scenario in which a wife, for example, divorces her husband because of cruelty or other evil (the hardness of man’s heart) and then later marries someone else.

But many would object that this is simply not what these passages say! They would argue that Jesus was clearly overturning Moses’ allowance for divorce, for example, in Mark 10:10-12 which says, Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her. And if she divorces her husband and marries another man, she commits adultery.” That simply does not allow for divorce due to the hardness of man’s heart.

My response is that Jesus was known for his use of hyperbole or overstatement! It is something that made his teaching so provocative, powerful and memorable. So for example, in the Sermon on the Mount which contains one of the prohibitions against divorce and remarriage, Jesus also says, Anyone who says, “you fool” will be in danger of hell fire” (Matthew 5:22). Yet Jesus was apparently speaking hyperbolically since he himself called people fools in Matthew 23:17. In the same context Jesus also talks about plucking out your eye and cutting off your hand if it might cause you to fall into adultery (Matthew 5:27-30). But Jesus was clearly speaking hyperbolically since even if you literally plucked out your eye, you’d still have another one to lust with. In the same passage, Jesus also commands his followers not to take oaths (Matthew 5:33-37). Apparently not even Paul interpreted Jesus literally since Paul took oaths (e.g. Romans 1:9; 2 Corinthians 1:23)! Most Evangelicals seem to have no problem swearing “to tell the truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth, so help me God,” which is clearly an oath. They understand that Jesus was using hyperbole.

Similarly, very few Evangelicals would say that Jesus’ commands to “turn the other cheek” or not to “resist an evil person” in Matthew 5:38-39 should prohibit all Christians from joining the military, serving as police, or protecting their family. We understand that Jesus is speaking hyperbolically. In Matthew 6:19-21 Jesus specifically says not to lay up treasures on earth, and yet how many evangelicals have savings accounts and 401k's?  We understand that Jesus regularly uses hyperbole to make his points.[7]

Yet right in the middle of all this hyperbolic instruction is Jesus’ teaching not to divorce except for sexual immorality (Matthew 5:31-32), and many Evangelical pastors insist that this could not possibly be hyperbole but must be taken literally with no other possible exceptions. This seems a bit selective and inconsistent.

It is certainly true that in Jesus’ prohibitions against divorce there is either no exception given, or only one exception, i.e. for sexual immorality. But the Bible was not written like modern American law books in which every exception is specifically spelled out in the immediate context or in legal cross references and footnotes. In the Bible, we are expected to compare Scripture with Scripture.

For example, in First Peter 2:13-17, Peter commands believers to submit to the government. He mentions no exceptions. And yet Peter himself defied his government saying, “We must obey God rather than men” (Acts 5:29). The idea that God always comes first is assumed in First Peter 2 as it is in Romans 13:1-6, even though no exceptions to the command to obey government are mentioned in those letters.

Why would we think there might be exceptions to the prohibition against divorce? The evidence is admittedly slim. In Mark 10:10-12 Jesus taught, “Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her. And if she divorces her husband and marries another man, she commits adultery.” This passage allows no exceptions. The same is true of Luke 16:18. So if all we had to go on was the Gospel of Mark or the Gospel of Luke, we would conclude that Jesus allowed absolutely no exceptions to his prohibition against divorce—and we would be wrong! In Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 Jesus says there is an exception for sexual immorality.[8] Matthew apparently knew there was more to Jesus’ teaching on this subject than Mark takes time to summarize. Surprisingly, in First Corinthians 7:15-16, Paul teaches that desertion is yet another valid allowance for divorce—and not only for divorce, but also for remarriage![9] How dare Paul add an exception to Jesus’ prohibition against divorce! Apparently, Paul either disagreed with what Jesus’ taught, or was ignorant of what Jesus taught, or (my view) Paul knew that there were more exceptions to Jesus’ teaching on divorce than the Gospel writers would later take time to summarize.[10]

Another possibility is the very disputed passage in Matthew 19:4-12 in which Jesus says that “anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.” Jesus’ disciples respond saying that it is better, then, not get married at all, and Jesus tells them, “Not everyone can accept this word.” In his discussion of this passage, Biblical scholar, R.T. France concludes, “In the end any of these options comes to much the same result that Jesus will here be conceding that not everyone is able to maintain God’s high standard for the permanence of marriage—in other words, that divorce (other than as a result of pornea) may in some cases be permissible after all[11] (“Pornea” is the Greek word for sexual immorality). Like France, I would interpret Matthew 19:4-12 as saying, if you divorce in order to marry someone else you have committed adultery. For others who find divorce necessary because of the hardness of a spouse’s heart, it is preferable that they remain unmarried, but not every divorced person is able to remain unmarried, and in remarrying, they have not necessarily sinned (I think, is one of Paul’s points in I Corinthians 7).

Two other considerations affect my thinking on this issue. First, according to Jesus, the second most important command in all of Scripture is the command to love one’s neighbor as oneself. In Galatians 5:14 Paul says that “the entire law is fulfilled in keeping this one command.” Certainly there are no “neighbors” closer than one’s children. If the only way to protect those children[12] from an abusive or dangerous spouse is by divorce, then, I believe Jesus would say that following the second greatest commandment by protecting those children, would take priority over the prohibition against divorce.[13]

A second consideration is admittedly even more subjective. Imagine two scenarios. In the first scenario, a woman whose military spouse was stationed overseas for a year, had a brief affair in a time of weakness. She quickly ended the affair and sincerely repented of her sin. In a second scenario, a husband regularly gets drunk, beats his wife and burns his children with cigarette butts. He absolutely refuses to seek help or to even acknowledge that he has a problem. I simply find it impossible to believe that if we could sit across the table from Jesus today, he would say that the first scenario is valid grounds for divorce but not the second scenario.

It is important to recognize that our decision on this issue may have serious pastoral consequences. Pastors who insist that Jesus prohibited divorce for any reason—or only for immorality—are often condemning people to live with malicious, evil and violent spouses who put them and their children in danger. One very prominent conservative, systematic theologian recently changed his view on this issue. After many years of teaching and writing, he now agrees with my conclusion. I’m glad for that, but one wonders how many lives he ruined over the years by telling the wives of abusive husbands that  they must never leave those husbands. The pastoral consequences of this issue are serious and sometimes have life-and-death ramifications.

My conclusion is that Jesus affirmed and strengthened the Old Testament teaching that marriage was intended as the union of one man and one woman until death. Divorce should never be considered just because two people “fall out of love,” become dissatisfied, or are “incompatible.” Marriage is a life-long commitment that can sometimes be lonely and painful—but God never promises a pain-free life, and following Jesus often leads to suffering! In such cases, pastoral or professional counseling may be helpful. Sometimes medication or temporary separation may be necessary. But the ultimate goal should be restoration of the marriage (1 Cor. 7:10-16). If someone is looking for excuses to get out of the marriage, they have already missed Jesus’ point.

Nevertheless, in cases when a spouse is exceptionally hard-hearted and all efforts at reconciliation fail, God allowed divorce. I do not believe Jesus overturned that allowance. That being the case, Paul’s admonition to widows and widowers that it is “better to marry than to burn with passion” (1 Cor. 7:9) would also seem to apply to those who are unmarried due to the hardness of their former spouses’ heart.

 



[1] My position on divorce and remarriage has remained unchanged since I wrote a research paper on it in seminary over 30 years ago.

[2] Although God allowed polygamy, polygamy was not God’s ideal and every case of polygamy in the Bible was a disaster.

[3] That God allowed divorce, however, is also implied in the prophets like Hosea, Isaiah, and Jeremiah, which depict God as divorcing Israel because of Israel's persistent unfaithfulness to the covenant. If divorce was practically the unforgivable sin that some pastors portray it to be, it seems odd that God would use an illustration in which he would depict himself as committing that sin by divorcing his people, Israel! That God allowed divorce is much clearer in Ezra where Jews were commanded to divorce their foreign, idolatrous wives, and this was said to be according to the will of God (Ezra 10:11). Everyone agrees that in the Old Testament, God reluctantly allowed divorce.

[4] The reason for the law was presumably to keep people from using the divorce allowance as legalized adultery, i.e. divorce your wife so you can legally marry and have sex with another. Then divorce your new wife and marry your previous wife again—assuming she was financially bad enough off to have you (Historically, this has actually happened in some Islamic countries)!

[5] It does not mean that every time a divorce occurs it was because both spouses’ hearts were hard, as some pastors have erroneously taught! For example, I once heard of a case in which a woman’s husband divorced her because she got saved and would no longer go out and get drunk with him. Her husband even acknowledged that she was a good wife—he just wanted someone to party with. In this case, the woman’s divorce was due to her commitment to Christ, not from any hardness on her part.

[6] Matthew 14:3-4; Mark 6:17-19; Luke 3:19-20.

[7] A more graphic example is in John 6 where Jesus tells people they must eat his flesh and drink his blood in order to be saved!

[8] It is worth noting that Jesus’ stepfather, Joseph, was characterized as a “just” or “righteous” man even when he intended to divorce Mary from their betrothal commitment (Matthew 1:19).

[9] In First Corinthians 7:10, Paul said that a woman is not to leave her husband, but if she does…. Paul’s command not to leave her husband appears to be an ideal but not an absolute. In other words, she has not necessarily sinned by doing so. She is not to leave her husband but if she does, she is to remain unmarried. But Paul also says it is better to marry than to burn with passion, which leads me to believe that his command to remain unmarried is also an ideal and not an absolute.

[10] Paul, of course, was not referring to the Gospels themselves, since most, if not all, of the Gospels were written after Paul’s letters. But Paul was certainly aware of Jesus’ teachings.

[11] R.T. France. 2007. The Gospel of Matthew (New International Commentary on the New Testament). Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 723.

[12] Jesus was particularly protective of children as seen in Matthew 18:6, Mark 9:42, and Luke 17:2.

[13] Unfortunately, this argument could easily be abused and turned in to an excuse to find a “biblical” reason for divorce. A vegetarian spouse, for example could argue that divorce is necessary to prevent the children from the “abuse” of being allowed to eat meat! That, however, would violate the point of Jesus’ prohibition against divorce. If someone is looking for an excuse to get divorced, they have already violated the intent of Jesus’ teaching.